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NEW QUESTION # 31
In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
- A. Content Engineering
- B. Initial Research
- C. Change Control
- D. Breach Response
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
In SecOps, the identify stage is the first step in the security operations lifecycle. It involves gaining knowledge and understanding of the possible security threats and establishing methods to detect, respond and proactively prevent them from occurring1. Two of the components included in the identify stage are:
* Initial Research: This component involves gathering information about the organization's assets, vulnerabilities, risks, and compliance requirements. It also involves identifying the key stakeholders, objectives, and metrics for the SecOps project2.
* Content Engineering: This component involves developing and maintaining the security content, such as rules, policies, signatures, and alerts, that will be used by the SecOps tools and processes. It also involves testing and validating the security content for accuracy and effectiveness3.
What is SecOps? (and what are the benefits and best practices?), SecOps - definition & overview, The Six Pillars of Effective Security Operations
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?
- A. Morphing code
- B. Data decompression
- C. Registered certificates
- D. Low traffic volumes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Morphing code, also known as polymorphism, allows advanced malware to change its code structure with each iteration or infection. This makes it extremely difficult for traditional signature-based detection tools to recognize and block the malware consistently.
NEW QUESTION # 33
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?
- A. The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.
- B. The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.
- C. The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.
- D. The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, it will send data to the specified default gateway.
A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from a local network to other networks or the internet. The endpoint will use the default gateway's IP address as the next hop for packets that are destined for unknown or remote networks. The default gateway will then forward the packets to the appropriate destination or another gateway, based on its routing table. References:
* Fundamentals of Network Security, Module 2: Networking Concepts, Lesson 2: IP Addressing and Routing1
* PCCET Study Guide, Section 2.2: Describe IP Addressing and Routing2
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?
- A. hacktivists
- B. cyberterrorists
- C. state-affiliated groups
- D. cybercriminals
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cyberterrorists are attackers who use the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and induce panic. Cyberterrorists may target critical infrastructure, government systems, or public services to cause disruption, damage, or harm. Cyberterrorists may also use the internet to disseminate propaganda, incite violence, or coordinate attacks. Cyberterrorists differ from other attacker profiles in their motivation, which is usually political, religious, or ideological, rather than financial or personal. References: Cyberterrorism, Cyber Threats, Cybersecurity Threat Landscape
NEW QUESTION # 35
In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)
- A. On-premises
- B. PaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. SaaS
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
In cloud computing, there are three main service models: Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). Each model defines the level of responsibility and control that the cloud provider and the cloud customer have over the cloud resources and services. The cloud provider is responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system in SaaS and PaaS models, while the cloud customer is responsible for it in IaaS model. In SaaS, the cloud provider delivers software applications over the internet and manages all aspects of the cloud infrastructure, platform, and application. The cloud customer only needs to access the software through a web browser or an API. In PaaS, the cloud provider offers a platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications and manages the cloud infrastructure and operating system. The cloud customer can use the platform tools and services to create and run their own applications. In IaaS, the cloud provider supplies the basic cloud infrastructure, such as servers, storage, and networking, and the cloud customer can provision and configure their own operating system, middleware, and applications. References: Cloud Computing Service Models, Cloud Security Fundamentals - Module 2: Cloud Computing Models, Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET)
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?
- A. Authorization
- B. Allowance
- C. Authentication
- D. Accounting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Authorization is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that regulates user access and permissions to resources after identity has been verified. It determines what actions or resources a user is allowed to access.
NEW QUESTION # 37
SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)
- A. Understanding
- B. People
- C. Business
- D. Accessibility
- E. Processes
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)
All elements must tie back to the business itself and the goals of the security operations
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?
- A. Authorization
- B. Authentication
- C. Allowance
- D. Accounting
Answer: B
Explanation:
Authentication is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) framework that verifies user identities (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) before granting access to network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?
- A. IKE Security Association
- B. d.Authentication Header (AH)
- C. Diffie-Hellman groups
- D. Split tunneling
Answer: D
Explanation:
"Or split tunneling can be configured to allow internet traffic from the device to go directly to the internet, while other specific types of traffic route through the IPsec tunnel, for acceptable protection with much less performance degradation."
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)
- A. Log normalization
- B. Incident response
- C. Hardware procurement
- D. Initial security team training
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Log normalization - SIEMs standardize log formats from various sources, making it easier to analyze and correlate security events.
Incident response - Integration enables faster detection, investigation, and automated or guided response to security incidents by using correlated data from multiple tools.
Hardware procurement and security team training are not directly influenced by SIEM integration.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)
- A. It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.
- B. It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.
- C. It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.
- D. It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
XDR (Extended Detection and Response) uses machine learning (ML) to detect threats by identifying patterns and anomalies. XDR ingests data from multiple sources - including endpoints, networks, servers, and cloud workloads - to provide a unified and correlated view of threats across the environment.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?
- A. people
- B. business
- C. technology
- D. interfaces
Answer: D
Explanation:
The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)
NEW QUESTION # 43
An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.
What can be created to dynamically block these websites?
- A. Decryption policy
- B. Application group
- C. URL category
- D. Custom signatures
Answer: C
Explanation:
URL categories classify websites based on content type or risk, enabling dynamic policy enforcement such as blocking or allowing access. Administrators can create custom URL categories to group sites like gambling domains and apply blocking rules across the firewall infrastructure. Palo Alto Networks firewalls leverage URL categorization combined with threat intelligence to provide granular web filtering, reducing exposure to malicious or unwanted sites. This dynamic grouping approach is more manageable and scalable than creating individual signatures or static lists and allows for automated policy application aligned with organizational compliance requirements.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?
- A. Virtualization
- B. API
- C. Code security
- D. IRP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Code security in cloud environments involves using tools like Static Application Security Testing (SAST) to automatically analyze source code for vulnerabilities before deployment. This helps identify and remediate potential threats early in the software development lifecycle.
NEW QUESTION # 45
How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?
- A. Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.
- B. Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.
- C. Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.
- D. Perform an attack on local systems.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Local systems can eliminate vulnerabilities by patching systems and software effectively and continuously.
Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software or hardware components that have known vulnerabilities or bugs. Patching can prevent attackers from exploiting these vulnerabilities and compromising the security or functionality of the systems. Patching should be done regularly and promptly, as new vulnerabilities are constantly discovered and exploited by cybercriminals. Patching should also be done effectively, meaning that the patches are tested and verified before deployment, and that they do not introduce new vulnerabilities or issues. Patching should also be done continuously, meaning that the systems are monitored for new vulnerabilities and patches are applied as soon as they are available. Continuous patching can reduce the window of opportunity for attackers to exploit unpatched vulnerabilities and cause damage or data breaches. References:
*1: What is Patch Management? | Palo Alto Networks
*2: Patch Management Best Practices: How to Keep Your Systems Secure | Snyk
*3: Vulnerability Remediation Process - 4 Steps to Remediation | Snyk
NEW QUESTION # 46
What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)
- A. Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network
- B. Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments
- C. Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure
- D. Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back- haul traffic to a centralized location
- E. Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Simplicity: Because each device is centrally managed, with routing based on application policies, WAN managers can create and update security rules in real time as network requirements change. Also, when SD- WAN is combined with zero-touch provisioning, a feature that helps automate the deployment and configuration processes, organizations can further reduce the complexity, resources, and operating expenses required to spin up new sites. # Improved performance: By allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without the need to backhaul traffic to centralized locations, organizations can provide a better user experience.
NEW QUESTION # 47
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Security Information and Event Management
- B. Standard Installation and Event Media
- C. Security Infosec and Event Management
- D. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
Originally designed as a tool to assist organizations with compliance and industry-specific regulations, security information and event management (SIEM) is a technology that has been around for almost two decades
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?
- A. network protection
- B. dynamic computing
- C. compute security
- D. visibility, governance, and compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured and adhere to your organization's security standards from day one is essential to prevent successful attacks. Also, making sure that these applications, and the data they collect and store, are properly protected and compliant is critical to avoid costly fines, a tarnished image, and loss of customer trust. Meeting security standards and maintaining compliant environments at scale, and across SaaS applications, is the new expectation for security teams.
NEW QUESTION # 49
How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?
- A. II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.
- B. It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.
- C. It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.
- D. II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) is a platform that enables security teams to manage the lifecycle of threat intelligence, from aggregation to action. One of the key features of Cortex XSOAR TIM is that it automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators from various sources, such as threat feeds, open-source intelligence, internal data, and third-party integrations 1. Indicators are pieces of information that can be used to identify malicious activity, such as IP addresses, domains, URLs, hashes, etc. By automating the ingestion and aggregation of indicators, Cortex XSOAR TIM reduces the manual effort and time required to collect, validate, and prioritize threat data. It also enables analysts to have a unified view of the global threat landscape and the impact of threats on their network 1. References: 1: Threat Intelligence Management
- Palo Alto Networks 2
NEW QUESTION # 50
What are two characteristics of an advanced persistent threat (APT)? (Choose two.)
- A. Repeated pursuit of objective
- B. Multiple attack vectors
- C. Reduced interaction time
- D. Tendency to isolate hosts
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Multiple attack vectors - APTs often use various methods (phishing, malware, lateral movement) to infiltrate and maintain access to a target.
Repeated pursuit of objective - APTs are known for their persistent nature, involving continuous efforts over time to achieve their goals, such as data theft or surveillance.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
- A. Continuous monitoring of resources
- B. Real-time protection from threats
- C. Alerts for new code introduction
- D. Integration with threat feeds
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM), including Prisma Cloud's offering, continuously monitors all cloud resources - such as compute instances, storage, network configurations, and identities - to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potential threats in near real time.
Reference: https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/prisma/cloud/cloud-security-posture-management
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?
- A. 192.168.19.16
- B. 192.168.19.0
- C. 192.168.19.32
- D. 192.168.19.64
Answer: A
Explanation:
To find the subnet that the host 192.168.19.36/27 belongs to, we need to convert the IP address and the subnet mask to binary form and perform a logical AND operation.
The /27 notation means that the subnet mask has 27 bits of ones and 5 bits of zeros.
In decimal form, the subnet mask is 255.255.255.224. The binary form of the IP address and the subnet mask are:
IP address: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100100 Subnet mask: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000
The logical AND operation gives us the network prefix:
Network prefix: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00100000
To get the subnet address, we convert the network prefix back to decimal form:
Subnet address: 192.168.19.32
The subnet address is the first address in the subnet range. To find the last address in the subnet range, we flip the bits of the subnet mask and perform a logical OR operation with the network prefix:
Flipped subnet mask: 00000000.00000000.00000000.00011111 Logical OR: 11000000.10101000.00010011.00111111
The last address in the subnet range is:
Last address: 192.168.19.63
The subnet range is from 192.168.19.32 to 192.168.19.63. The host 192.168.19.36 belongs to this subnet.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. 192.168.19.16, which is the second address in the subnet range.
IP Subnet Calculator
Subnet Calculator - IP and CIDR
Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong? - VCEguide.com
NEW QUESTION # 53
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